Markets: A Rigorous Course

M06 · Problem 6 ★★★ Check

Competitive-advantage period

A company earns NOPAT1=N\text{NOPAT}_1 = N on existing capital in perpetuity. In each year t=1,…,Tt = 1, \dots, T it invests It=(g/R)NOPATtI_t = (g/R)\text{NOPAT}_t, and each such investment earns RR in perpetuity from year t+1t+1. After year TT, new investments earn exactly WW. (a) Prove that

V0=NW+Ng(R−W)RW⋅1−(1+g1+W)TW−g.V_0 = \frac{N}{W} + \frac{N g (R-W)}{R W}\cdot\frac{1 - \left(\frac{1+g}{1+W}\right)^T}{W-g}.

(b) Show that as T→∞T \to \infty (with g<Wg < W) this tends to the value-driver formula (6.13). (c) Evaluate for NN = ₹500 cr, gg = 8%, RR = 30%, WW = 12% and TT = 5, 10, 20. What fraction of the infinite-horizon value of growth does a 10-year advantage capture?

Answers

Commas, ₹, % and 1e-3 notation are accepted.

Working

Keep your working next to each problem, in markdown with maths: create a free account or sign in.

Solution

Try the problem first. Write down where you got stuck before opening it.

Create a free account

Reading is open to everyone. An account keeps your progress, answers, notes and code drafts, and gives you the study plan, the journals and the simulator. Running code needs an account approved for it.