8.7Risk-neutral valuation and the Black–Scholes formula
Core about 20 min
Motivation
The PDE can be solved by transforming to the heat equation. The faster route, and the one that generalises, is to write the solution as a discounted expectation under the risk-neutral measure and compute the integral. You will do the computation once in full; it is short.
Let Mu=e−r(u−t)V(u,Su) with S following (8.20). Itô's lemma gives dMu=e−r(u−t)[Vu+(r−q)SVS+21σ2S2VSS−rV]du+e−r(u−t)σSVSdWu. The bracket is zero by (8.18), so M is a local martingale; with growth conditions it is a true martingale, and V(t,S)=Mt=E[MT]=e−r(T−t)E[h(ST)]. See Shreve II, Thm 6.4.1.∎
Girsanov's theorem (stated, not proved) The tilde process lives under a different probability measure. Let W be a P-Brownian motion on [0,T] and θ a constant. Define Q by the density
dPdQ=exp(−θWT−21θ2T).(8.21)
Then Wt=Wt+θt is a Q-Brownian motion, and Q and P agree on which events have probability zero. Choose θ=(μ−(r−q))/σ, the market price of risk: excess return per unit of volatility. Then
dS=μSdt+σSdW=μSdt+σS(dW−θdt)=(r−q)Sdt+σSdW,
which is (8.20). Under Q the discounted gains process e−(r−q)tSt is a martingale; this is the continuous-time version of the risk-neutral p of 8.3.
Intuition. For one variable, the density e−θx−θ2T/2 is exactly the likelihood ratio φ−θT,T(x)/φ0,T(x) of N(−θT,T) to N(0,T). Reweighting the paths of W by it shifts the mean of WT by −θT and leaves the variance alone. Girsanov says this works path by path for the whole process: a change of measure can change the drift of a diffusion but never its volatility. That is why option prices depend on σ (which both measures share) and not on μ (which the measure change removes). The proof is in Shreve II, Thm 5.2.3, or Karatzas and Shreve (1991), 3.5.
using the substitution y=z−στ and 1−N(−x)=N(x). This proves (8.23). For (8.24), apply parity (8.4): p=c−Se−qτ+Ke−rτ=Ke−rτ(1−N(d2))−Se−qτ(1−N(d1)).∎
Interpretation of N(d1) and N(d2)N(d2) is the risk-neutral probability that the call finishes in the money. N(d1) is the probability of the same event under the measure that uses the stock (with dividends reinvested) as numéraire; Step 3 is exactly that change of measure, with the density ST/EQ[ST] tilting Z by στ. In the CRR closed form (8.12) these are the limits of the p-tail and the p′-tail. Neither is the real-world probability of exercise; that would use μ in place of r−q.
Remark 8.7.3 (limits) As τ↓0, d1,2→±∞ according to the sign of ln(S/K), and c→(S−K)+. As σ↓0 with τ>0, d1,2→±∞ according to the sign of ln(F/K), and c→e−rτ(F−K)+: with no uncertainty the stock surely ends at the forward. As σ→∞, d1→∞ and d2→−∞, so c→Se−qτ, the upper bound (8.6). The formula spans exactly the no-arbitrage band; this is the basis for 8.10.
Worked example 8.7reference values
S=K=100, τ=1, r=5%, q=0, σ=20%. Then d1=(0+0.05+0.02)/0.2=0.35, d2=0.15, N(0.35)=0.636831, N(0.15)=0.559618, and
precisely 10.4505835722, and p=5.5735260223. Check parity: 10.4506−5.5735=4.8771=100−100e−0.05. Hull's example (S=42, K=40, r=10%, σ=20%, τ=0.5) gives d1=0.7693, d2=0.6278, c=4.759422, p=0.808599. A Monte Carlo with 200,000 risk-neutral draws (m08_mc.mc_price, seed 42) gives 10.4634±0.0331 for the first case, within half a standard error.
Practitioner notes
The inputs are S,K,τ,r,q,σ. Only σ is not observable. In India, q for Nifty is also awkward: index dividends are lumpy (results season) and not continuous. That is the reason to price off the future (8.8).
Time: use calendar days/365 for discounting and either calendar or trading days for variance, but be consistent and know which one your vendor uses. For weekly options the difference is material: a Tuesday expiry seen from Friday is 4 calendar days but 2 trading days.