9.4 The variance risk premium
Motivation
If implied volatility were an unbiased forecast of realised volatility, option selling would earn nothing on average before costs. It does earn something, and the reason is that the volatility you sell is insurance.
Definition
Let be the realised variance over (in practice, the annualised sum of squared daily log returns). Let be the pricing measure and the real-world measure. The variance risk premium is
is the variance-swap rate, which 9.6 shows is observable from option prices. Carr and Wu (2009) use the opposite sign, , so in their convention the premium is negative. The ex-post realised premium is .
9.4.1The sign of the premium#
Proposition 9.7sign of the premium
Let be a strictly positive stochastic discount factor, so for payoffs at . Then
Proof
. Divide by and subtract .∎
is high in bad states (marginal utility is high when wealth has fallen). Realised variance is also high in bad states: equity volatility rises when prices fall (the leverage effect, M02). So and the premium is positive. Selling variance means selling a payoff that pays out exactly when investors most value money. A positive average return to selling it is compensation for that, not an inefficiency.
9.4.2Evidence from the US and India#
Evidence
- Carr and Wu (2009), "Variance Risk Premiums", Review of Financial Studies 22(3): 1311–1341. They synthesise variance-swap rates from option prices (the replication of 9.6) for 5 stock indexes and 35 individual stocks, and compare them with subsequent realised variance. Average realised-minus-swap premiums are strongly negative for the S&P 500 and Nasdaq-100 indexes, and the premiums are not explained by the classical equity factors (market beta, size, value, momentum).
- Bakshi and Kapadia (2003), "Delta-Hedged Gains and the Negative Market Volatility Risk Premium", RFS 16(2): 527–566. Delta-hedged long S&P 500 option positions lose money on average, which is (9.11) with on average.
- Coval and Shumway (2001), "Expected Option Returns", Journal of Finance 56(3): 983–1009. Zero-beta (crash-neutral) straddles on the S&P 500 earn large negative returns.
- Bollerslev, Tauchen and Zhou (2009), "Expected Stock Returns and Variance Risk Premia", RFS 22(11): 4463–4492. The premium predicts subsequent equity index returns at quarterly horizons.
- India. Sankar, Ramachandran and Lukose (2020), "Dynamics of variance risk premium: Evidence from India", International Review of Economics & Finance 70: 321–334, test whether variance risk is priced in a market with heavy retail participation and reject the hypothesis that it is not, using model-free and model-dependent measures across sampling frequencies and periods. They also find that past continuous variance, not jumps, predicts short-term synthetic variance-swap returns. A direct comparison of India VIX with subsequent realised Nifty volatility is a computation you can make yourself (India VIX and Nifty closes from NSE's daily index files, cached and read with
toolkit.data.load(..., source="cache"); Problem 17). I did not find a peer-reviewed number for the average India VIX minus realised gap that I could verify, so none is quoted here.
Practitioner notes
- The premium is an average over regimes. In a crash, realised exceeds implied by a wide margin, and the ex-post premium is hugely negative for weeks (Case study 9.12.4).
- The premium is not the same at every strike. Out-of-the-money index puts carry more of it than calls (9.5), which is the smile's job.
- In India about 97% of individual F&O traders were option buyers in FY26 (SEBI FY26 study; M01 · 1.11 Case 1; 9.12.3). In the language of this section, retail as a group pays the premium. The sellers are mostly proprietary traders and FPIs.
Data lab
India VIX against realised Nifty volatility
India VIX is the market's 30-calendar-day implied volatility for the Nifty. The lab compares it each day with the volatility the Nifty actually realised over the next 21 trading days (about 30 calendar days), annualised with 252 days. The gap VIX − RV is the ex-post volatility premium, and the mean of VIX² − RV² is the ex-post variance premium of (9.16) with the sign used in 9.4.
What to look at The share of days on which VIX exceeded the volatility that followed, the size of the negative gaps around shocks, and the scatter of VIX against subsequent realised volatility (one point per non-overlapping window, so the points are not mechanically correlated). 9.4 does not quote an Indian average for this gap; this is the computation it asks you to make yourself.
Questions
- Is the average premium positive over the full sample and in the last two years? How much of the full-sample average comes from a few crisis windows?
- Proposition 9.7 says the premium is compensation for paying out in bad states. Where in the time series do you see the seller's bad states, and how large are they relative to the average gap?
- The OLS slope of realised on VIX is below one in most samples. What does that say about VIX as a forecast, and why is "VIX is high, so sell options" not the same trade as harvesting the average premium?
- VIX uses calendar time and realised vol uses trading days (9.1). How would a mismatch of conventions bias the measured premium?