Markets: A Rigorous Course

3.8 Drawdowns

Advanced about 15 min

Motivation

Investors and traders do not experience growth rates; they experience drawdowns. A fund with a 30% drawdown loses clients; a proprietary trader with a 10% drawdown loses their book. The distribution of drawdowns, not the growth rate, often decides survival.

Drawdowns of Brownian log-wealth#

Setup

For a process XtX_t (log-wealth), the running maximum is Mt=sup⁡u≤tXuM_t = \sup_{u\le t}X_u, the drawdown is Dt=Mt−Xt≥0D_t = M_t - X_t \ge 0, and the maximum drawdown over [0,T][0, T] is MDDT=sup⁡t≤TDt\text{MDD}_T = \sup_{t\le T}D_t. In wealth terms a log-drawdown dd is a fall of 1−e−d1 - e^{-d} from the peak.

Proposition 3.15stationary drawdown of Brownian log-wealth

Let Xt=mt+sBtX_t = mt + sB_t with m>0m > 0. As t→∞t \to \infty, DtD_t converges in distribution to an exponential law with rate 2m/s22m/s^2:

lim⁡t→∞P(Dt>d)=e−2md/s2.(3.20)\lim_{t\to\infty}P(D_t > d) = e^{-2md/s^2}. \tag{3.20}
Proof

Fix tt. Dt=sup⁡0≤u≤t(Xu−Xt)=sup⁡0≤v≤t(−(Xt−Xt−v))D_t = \sup_{0\le u\le t}(X_u - X_t) = \sup_{0\le v\le t}\big(-(X_t - X_{t-v})\big). The process X~v=Xt−Xt−v\tilde X_v = X_t - X_{t-v}, 0≤v≤t0 \le v \le t, has independent stationary Gaussian increments with mean mvmv and variance s2vs^2v and starts at 0, so it is a Brownian motion with drift mm on [0,t][0, t] (time reversal). Hence Dt=dsup⁡v≤t(−X~v)D_t \overset{d}{=} \sup_{v\le t}(-\tilde X_v), which increases to sup⁡v≥0(−X~v)\sup_{v\ge0}(-\tilde X_v) as t→∞t \to \infty. By Proposition 3.7, P(sup⁡v≥0(−X~v)>d)=P(inf⁡vX~v<−d)=e−2md/s2P(\sup_{v\ge0}(-\tilde X_v) > d) = P(\inf_v\tilde X_v < -d) = e^{-2md/s^2}.∎

For a fractional-Kelly bettor, 2m/s2=2/c−12m/s^2 = 2/c - 1 (Proposition 3.8), so in the long run the fraction of time spent more than a fraction 1−x1 - x below the peak is x2/c−1x^{2/c - 1}. A full-Kelly bettor is more than 50% below their previous peak half of the time. Half Kelly: one-eighth of the time.

Expected maximum drawdown#

Maximum drawdown over a horizon For Brownian motion with drift the distribution of MDDT\text{MDD}_T has no elementary closed form. Magdon-Ismail, Atiya, Pratap and Abu-Mostafa (2004) give its expectation as a series and the large-TT asymptotic

E[MDDT]≈2s2m(14ln⁡m2T2s2+0.49088),m2T2s2≫1.(3.21)E[\text{MDD}_T] \approx \frac{2s^2}{m}\Big(\tfrac14\ln\frac{m^2T}{2s^2} + 0.49088\Big), \qquad \frac{m^2T}{2s^2} \gg 1. \tag{3.21}

Expected maximum drawdown grows only logarithmically in TT, at a rate s2/(2m)s^2/(2m) set by the same ratio as in (3.20).

Worked example 3.8.1a Sharpe-1 strategy

A strategy with arithmetic excess return 15% and volatility 15% a year has log drift m=0.15−0.152/2=0.139m = 0.15 - 0.15^2/2 = 0.139 and s=0.15s = 0.15.

  • Probability of ever being 20% below the starting capital: e−2(0.139)(0.223)/0.0225=0.064e^{-2(0.139)(0.223)/0.0225} = 0.064.
  • Long-run share of time in a drawdown deeper than 20%: also 6.4%.
  • Expected maximum drawdown over 10 years from (3.21): 2(0.0225)0.139(14ln⁡4.28+0.491)=0.277\frac{2(0.0225)}{0.139}(\frac14\ln 4.28 + 0.491) = 0.277 in log terms, a 24% fall. A Monte Carlo of 20,000 ten-year paths with daily steps gives 0.278, and a 71% probability that the 10-year maximum drawdown exceeds 20%.

The last number is the one to tell investors: a strategy with Sharpe 1, a level few funds sustain, will probably have a 20% drawdown within a decade.

Worked example 3.8.2buy and hold Nifty

With m=8.75%m = 8.75\% and s=20%s = 20\% (the Nifty sample, M02 · 2.2), simulated 20-year paths have an expected maximum drawdown of 0.64 in log terms (a 47% fall), and a 33% chance of a maximum drawdown worse than 50%. The asymptotic formula gives 0.60. The Nifty sample's actual maximum drawdown was 59.9%, from 6,287.85 on 8 Jan 2008 to 2,524.20 on 27 Oct 2008; the index regained its January 2008 close only in November 2010.

Drawdowns of a random walk#

Proposition 3.16random-walk drawdown excursions

For the ±1\pm1 walk with p>qp > q, standing at a running maximum, the probability that it falls kk units below that maximum before setting a new maximum is

πk=ρk(1−ρ)1−ρk+1,ρ=q/p.(3.22)\pi_k = \frac{\rho^k(1-\rho)}{1 - \rho^{k+1}}, \qquad \rho = q/p. \tag{3.22}
Proof

Shift coordinates so the current maximum is kk and the drawdown level is 0. A new maximum is reached at k+1k + 1. This is gambler's ruin from a=ka = k with N=k+1N = k + 1: Pk=(ρk−ρk+1)/(1−ρk+1)P_k = (\rho^k - \rho^{k+1})/(1 - \rho^{k+1}).∎

Successive excursions below the running maximum are independent, so the number of excursions before the first kk-unit drawdown is geometric with parameter πk\pi_k. Over nn steps the walk makes about n(p−q)n(p - q) new maxima, so P(MDDn<k)≈(1−πk)n(p−q)P(\text{MDD}_n < k) \approx (1 - \pi_k)^{n(p-q)}, and the typical maximum drawdown grows like ln⁡n/ln⁡(1/ρ)\ln n/\ln(1/\rho), the discrete analogue of (3.21). For p=0.55p = 0.55: π5=0.095\pi_5 = 0.095 and π10=0.027\pi_{10} = 0.027.

Practitioner notes

  • Maximum drawdown in a backtest is a single draw from a wide distribution. Report its distribution by simulation or by bootstrap of the trade list, not its single value (3.9).
  • Drawdowns are path-dependent, so volatility clustering (M02 · 2.7) and positive autocorrelation in stress lengthen them beyond the iid estimates. Treat (3.20)–(3.22) as lower bounds.

Data lab Open on OI Charts (opens in a new tab)

Nifty drawdowns at constant leverage

The lab builds the wealth of a Nifty 50 holding since 17 Sep 2007 at a constant leverage LL, rebalanced daily (Wt=Wt−1(1+LRt)W_t = W_{t-1}(1 + L R_t), financing cost and dividends ignored, so wealth is measured against cash with r=0r = 0). It draws the underwater curve 1−Wt/max⁡s≤tWs1 - W_t/\max_{s \le t} W_s, the share of days spent more than a depth dd below the running peak, and the Brownian prediction x2m/s2x^{2m/s^2} with x=1−dx = 1 - d, m=Lμ−12L2σ2m = L\mu - \tfrac12 L^2\sigma^2, s=Lσs = L\sigma from the sample μ\mu and σ\sigma. The table gives f∗=μ/σ2f^* = \mu/\sigma^2 and the implied Kelly multiple c=L/f∗c = L/f^*, so that the exponent equals 2/c−12/c - 1 (Propositions 3.8 and 3.15).

What to look at The 2008 drawdown and its recovery date (compare Worked example 3.8.2), how the curve deepens as LL rises, and whether the empirical share of time below each depth sits above or below the Brownian line.

Questions

  1. At L=1L = 1, is the empirical share of days more than 20% below the peak larger or smaller than the model? Which features of Nifty returns (M02 · 2.5) would push it above the Brownian prediction?
  2. Find the leverage at which c≈1c \approx 1 (full Kelly) and c≈2c \approx 2. What happens to the maximum drawdown and to the end-of-sample wealth? Relate this to the 2× leveraged product of 3.4.
  3. The sample μ\mu has a standard error of about σ/T\sigma/\sqrt T (M02 · 2.4). Using Proposition 3.9, what multiple of the estimated Kelly leverage would you actually use?
  4. Why does the longest time under water matter more to an investor than the maximum drawdown alone?

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