Markets: A Rigorous Course

9A.7 The straddle-implied move

Core about 15 min

Motivation

"The straddle is pricing a 300-point move" is the most common sentence on an options desk before an event. It has an exact meaning, and it is not "one standard deviation".

9A.7.1The ATM-forward straddle#

Proposition 9A.5ATM-forward straddle

Under Black-76 with forward FF, volatility σ\sigma and x=στx=\sigma\sqrt\tau, the straddle struck at K=FK=F is

ΠATM=2e−rτF[2N ⁣(x2)−1](9A.7)\Pi_{ATM}=2e^{-r\tau}F\left[2N\!\left(\tfrac x2\right)-1\right] \tag{9A.7}

and

ΠATM=e−rτFστ2π(1−σ2τ24+O(σ4τ2))≤e−rτFστ2π≈0.8 e−rτFστ.(9A.8)\begin{aligned} \Pi_{ATM}&=e^{-r\tau}F\sigma\sqrt\tau\sqrt{\tfrac2\pi}\left(1-\frac{\sigma^2\tau}{24}+O(\sigma^4\tau^2)\right)\\ &\le e^{-r\tau}F\sigma\sqrt\tau\sqrt{\tfrac2\pi}\approx0.8\,e^{-r\tau}F\sigma\sqrt\tau. \end{aligned} \tag{9A.8}
Proof

At K=FK=F, d1=x/2d_1=x/2 and d2=−x/2d_2=-x/2, so the call is e−rτF[N(x/2)−N(−x/2)]=e−rτF[2N(x/2)−1]e^{-r\tau}F[N(x/2)-N(-x/2)]=e^{-r\tau}F[2N(x/2)-1]. Parity at K=FK=F gives C−P=0C-P=0, so the straddle is twice the call: (9A.7). Write 2N(y)−1=2∫0yφ(u) du2N(y)-1=2\int_0^y\varphi(u)\,du with φ(u)=(2π)−1/2(1−u2/2+O(u4))\varphi(u)=(2\pi)^{-1/2}(1-u^2/2+O(u^4)); then 2N(y)−1=2/π (y−y3/6+O(y5))2N(y)-1=\sqrt{2/\pi}\,(y-y^3/6+O(y^5)). With y=x/2y=x/2: 2[2N(x/2)−1]=2/π (x−x3/24+O(x5))2\big[2N(x/2)-1\big]=\sqrt{2/\pi}\,(x-x^3/24+O(x^5)), which is (9A.8). The bound: φ(u)≤φ(0)\varphi(u)\le\varphi(0), so 2N(y)−1≤2yφ(0)=y2/π2N(y)-1\le2y\varphi(0)=y\sqrt{2/\pi}.∎

The relative error of the linear rule is σ2τ/24\sigma^2\tau/24: for a 7-day Nifty straddle at 13% it is 1.35×10−51.35\times10^{-5}. The approximation is exact for every practical expiry.

9A.7.2The expected absolute move#

Proposition 9A.6the straddle is the expected absolute move

(a) Under the pricing measure, erτΠATM=EQ∣FT−F∣e^{r\tau}\Pi_{ATM}=\mathbb E^{\mathbb Q}|F_T-F| exactly. (b) If the move ST−SS_T-S is normal with mean zero and standard deviation SστS\sigma\sqrt\tau,

E∣ST−S∣=Sστ2π,P(∣ST−S∣<E∣ST−S∣)=2N ⁣(2/π)−1=0.5751.(9A.9)\begin{gathered} \mathbb E|S_T-S|=S\sigma\sqrt\tau\sqrt{\tfrac2\pi},\\ \mathbb P\big(|S_T-S|<\mathbb E|S_T-S|\big)=2N\!\left(\sqrt{2/\pi}\right)-1=0.5751. \end{gathered} \tag{9A.9}
Proof

(a) The straddle pays ∣FT−K∣|F_T-K| at TT; at K=FK=F its price is e−rτEQ∣FT−F∣e^{-r\tau}\mathbb E^{\mathbb Q}|F_T-F| by risk-neutral valuation (M08 · 8.7). (b) For Z∼N(0,1)Z\sim N(0,1), E∣Z∣=2∫0∞zφ(z)dz=2φ(0)=2/π\mathbb E|Z|=2\int_0^\infty z\varphi(z)dz=2\varphi(0)=\sqrt{2/\pi}. Then P(∣Z∣<2/π)=2N(2/π)−1\mathbb P(|Z|<\sqrt{2/\pi})=2N(\sqrt{2/\pi})-1.∎

So the straddle price is the market's mean absolute move, about 0.8 standard deviations, and in a normal world the index ends inside ±\pmstraddle about 57.5% of the time. The one-standard-deviation move is Π/0.8≈1.25 Π\Pi/0.8\approx1.25\,\Pi. Two cautions: (a) is a statement under Q\mathbb Q; with a variance premium (M09 · 9.4) the real-world mean absolute move is smaller. And real moves are fat-tailed, so the probability of finishing inside the straddle is typically higher than 57.5% and the probability of a very large move also higher.

9A.7.3Nifty straddles in 2026#

Worked example 9A.3the eve of the RBI decision

On 6 Oct 2026 the Nifty 13 Oct expiry (7 days) had a parity forward of 22,747.10 and the 22,750 call and put closed at 151.15 and 154.05: straddle 305.20 (NSE F&O bhavcopy, 6 Oct 2026). The quick inversion σ≈Πerτ/(0.798Fτ)\sigma\approx\Pi e^{r\tau}/(0.798F\sqrt\tau) gives 12.155%; the exact Black-76 inversion with r=5.25%r=5.25\% gives 12.154%. One standard deviation over the week is 22,776×0.12157/365=38322{,}776\times0.1215\sqrt{7/365}=383 points; the expected absolute move is 306 points, the straddle itself.

Indian sample Over the 31 expiries of 9A.16 the day-before ATM straddle of the expiring Nifty series averaged 178.3 points and the realised absolute move to settlement averaged 149.6 points (ratio 0.84). The move was smaller than the straddle on 71% of days, and a buyer of every straddle at the closing prices lost 28.6 points on average before costs (t=−1.44t=-1.44). The direction is what a variance premium predicts; the size of the sample cannot establish it.

See it live: the current ATM straddle price is on each F&O stock's page (https://oicharts.com/stocks/SYMBOL); divide by the spot price for the market's expected absolute move to expiry, and by 0.8 for one standard deviation (Proposition 9A.6).

Data lab

The Nifty option chain from the NSE bhavcopy

The latest NSE F&O bhavcopy chain for the Nifty, one expiry at a time. Implied volatilities are Black-76 on the forward (the same-expiry future when one exists, otherwise the put–call parity forward of (9A.1)), computed only for contracts that traded that day. The smile uses out-of-the-money options: puts below the forward, calls above. Open interest is shown per strike, with the day's change in OI as a toggle.

What to look at The slope of the smile around the forward (9A.1 and M09 · 9.5), where open interest is concentrated relative to the forward, the put–call ratio (9A.4), max pain (9A.5) and the ATM straddle with its implied volatility from the 0.8 rule (9A.7).

Questions

  1. Compare the straddle-implied σ with the IVs of the strikes next to the forward. They should agree to within the parity residual divided by vega; do they?
  2. Where is max pain relative to the index close? Using the corollary to Proposition 9A.3, explain why max pain sits near where OI was written rather than predicting where the index will settle.
  3. Switch between a weekly and a monthly expiry. How do the smile's slope, the PCR and the straddle (as a share of F) change, and which change is explained by τ alone through (9A.8)?
  4. Which strikes added the most put OI today? Proposition 9A.1 and 9A.3 say a price-and-OI label does not identify who initiated the trades; what extra information would you need?

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