Markets: A Rigorous Course

11.2 Duration

Core about 15 min

Motivation

Rates move every day. A desk needs one number that converts "yields up 25 bp" into "we lose ₹X". Duration is that number.

Definition

The Macaulay duration is the present-value-weighted average time to the cash flows:

Dmac=1P∑k=1Ntk CFk (1+y/m)−mtk.(11.4)D_{\text{mac}} = \frac{1}{P}\sum_{k=1}^{N} t_k\,CF_k\,(1+y/m)^{-mt_k}. \tag{11.4}

The modified duration is the proportional price sensitivity:

Dmod=−1PdPdy.(11.5)D_{\text{mod}} = -\frac{1}{P}\frac{dP}{dy}. \tag{11.5}

DV01 (dollar value of a basis point, called PV01 on Indian desks) is P Dmod×10−4P\,D_{\text{mod}}\times 10^{-4}, the money lost for a 1 bp rise.

Proposition 11.2

Dmod=Dmac/(1+y/m)D_{\text{mod}} = D_{\text{mac}}/(1+y/m).

Proof

Differentiate (11.2):

dPdy=∑kCFk (−mtk) 1m (1+y/m)−mtk−1=−11+y/m∑ktk CFk(1+y/m)−mtk.\frac{dP}{dy} = \sum_k CF_k\,(-mt_k)\,\frac{1}{m}\,(1+y/m)^{-mt_k-1} = -\frac{1}{1+y/m}\sum_k t_k\,CF_k(1+y/m)^{-mt_k}.

Divide by −P-P and compare with (11.4).∎

Proposition 11.3closed forms

(a) For a zero-coupon bond maturing at TT, Dmac=TD_{\text{mac}}=T. (b) For a bond at par with per-period yield jj and NN periods, measured in periods,

Dmod=1−(1+j)−Nj,Dmac=1+jj(1−(1+j)−N).(11.6)D_{\text{mod}} = \frac{1-(1+j)^{-N}}{j},\qquad D_{\text{mac}} = \frac{1+j}{j}\left(1-(1+j)^{-N}\right). \tag{11.6}

(c) As N→∞N\to\infty the par-bond Macaulay duration tends to (1+j)/j(1+j)/j, the duration of a perpetuity.

Proof

(a) There is one cash flow, so the weighted average is TT. (b) Write (11.3) per unit face as P(j)=qj(1−(1+j)−N)+(1+j)−NP(j) = \frac{q}{j}(1-(1+j)^{-N}) + (1+j)^{-N}, where q=c/mq=c/m is the per-period coupon. Hold qq fixed and differentiate in jj:

P′(j)=−qj2(1−(1+j)−N)+qjN(1+j)−N−1−N(1+j)−N−1.P'(j) = -\frac{q}{j^2}\left(1-(1+j)^{-N}\right) + \frac{q}{j}N(1+j)^{-N-1} - N(1+j)^{-N-1}.

At par, q=jq=j and P=1P=1. The last two terms cancel and P′(j)=−1j(1−(1+j)−N)P'(j) = -\frac{1}{j}(1-(1+j)^{-N}). So Dmod=−P′/PD_{\text{mod}}=-P'/P is as stated, and Proposition 11.2 (in per-period units) gives Dmac=(1+j)DmodD_{\text{mac}}=(1+j)D_{\text{mod}}. (c) Let N→∞N\to\infty.∎

Divide by mm to convert periods into years.

Worked example 11.2

Take a 6.50% 10-year par G-sec, so j=3.25%j=3.25\% and N=20N=20. Then

Dmod=1−1.0325−200.0325/2=7.270 years,Dmac=7.506 years.D_{\text{mod}} = \frac{1-1.0325^{-20}}{0.0325}\Big/2 = 7.270 \text{ years},\qquad D_{\text{mac}} = 7.506 \text{ years}.

The DV01 per ₹100 face is ₹0.0727. A position of ₹100 crore face therefore loses about ₹7.27 lakh per bp, and about ₹1.82 crore for a 25 bp rise in yield.

A 10-year zero at 6.50% has Dmac=10D_{\text{mac}}=10 and Dmod=9.685D_{\text{mod}}=9.685. Coupons pull duration below maturity because part of the value comes back early.

Practitioner notes

  • Duration assumes a parallel shift: every yield moves by the same amount. Real curves twist. Desks also compute key-rate durations, the sensitivity to each maturity bucket separately.
  • Duration is additive across a portfolio by value weight. This is why a fund manager states a single "portfolio modified duration". Indian gilt funds disclose it monthly.
  • The duration of a floating-rate bond is roughly the time to the next reset. Floaters carry almost no rate risk, which is why banks prefer repo-linked loans.

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