Markets: A Rigorous Course

11.9 Uncovered interest parity, the forward premium puzzle and PPP

Advanced about 15 min

11.9.1UIP and the Fama regression#

Uncovered interest parity (UIP) says that, with risk-neutral investors, expected depreciation equals the rate differential:

Et[st+1]−st=it−it∗,(11.19)\mathbb E_t[s_{t+1}] - s_t = i_t - i_t^*, \tag{11.19}

with s=ln⁡Ss=\ln S. Combined with CIP, ft−st=it−it∗f_t - s_t = i_t-i_t^*, so UIP says the forward is an unbiased predictor of the future spot. Fama (1984, J. Monetary Econ. 14(3):319–338 [V]) tested this with

Δst+1=a+b (ft−st)+εt+1,(11.20)\Delta s_{t+1} = a + b\,(f_t - s_t) + \varepsilon_{t+1}, \tag{11.20}

where UIP predicts a=0a=0, b=1b=1. The robust finding across major currency pairs and decades is b<1b<1, often b<0b<0: high-interest currencies tend, if anything, to appreciate. This is the forward premium puzzle.

Proposition 11.10Fama decomposition

Write ft−st=qt+ptf_t-s_t = q_t + p_t, with qt=EtΔst+1q_t = \mathbb E_t\Delta s_{t+1} (expected depreciation) and ptp_t a risk premium. Under rational expectations, the population slope in (11.20) is

b=Var⁡(q)+Cov⁡(p,q)Var⁡(q)+Var⁡(p)+2Cov⁡(p,q).(11.21)b = \frac{\operatorname{Var}(q)+\operatorname{Cov}(p,q)}{\operatorname{Var}(q)+\operatorname{Var}(p)+2\operatorname{Cov}(p,q)}. \tag{11.21}

Then b<0b<0 requires Cov⁡(p,q)<−Var⁡(q)\operatorname{Cov}(p,q)<-\operatorname{Var}(q), and b<12b<\tfrac12 requires Var⁡(p)>Var⁡(q)\operatorname{Var}(p)>\operatorname{Var}(q).

Proof

Δst+1=qt+ηt+1\Delta s_{t+1} = q_t + \eta_{t+1} with η\eta a forecast error uncorrelated with time-tt information. Therefore Cov⁡(Δs,f−s)=Cov⁡(q,q+p)=Var⁡(q)+Cov⁡(p,q)\operatorname{Cov}(\Delta s, f-s) = \operatorname{Cov}(q, q+p) = \operatorname{Var}(q)+\operatorname{Cov}(p,q). Dividing by Var⁡(q+p)\operatorname{Var}(q+p) gives (11.21). The denominator is positive, so b<0b<0 iff the numerator is negative. Next, b<12  ⟺  2Var⁡(q)+2Cov⁡<Var⁡(q)+Var⁡(p)+2Cov⁡  ⟺  Var⁡(q)<Var⁡(p)b<\tfrac12 \iff 2\operatorname{Var}(q)+2\operatorname{Cov} < \operatorname{Var}(q)+\operatorname{Var}(p)+2\operatorname{Cov} \iff \operatorname{Var}(q)<\operatorname{Var}(p).∎

So a negative bb means the risk premium is more volatile than expected depreciation and negatively correlated with it. The forward premium is mostly a time-varying risk premium. Section 11.9.2 asks what risk that premium pays for.

Small-sample caveat f−sf-s is highly persistent, so (11.20) suffers the Stambaugh-type bias of predictive regressions. That bias does not overturn the finding, but standard errors from OLS are optimistic. m11_parity.py checks the OLS test's size under the null on simulated data: rejection about 5% at n=240n=240.

11.9.2The carry trade#

A carry trade borrows in a low-rate (funding) currency and invests in a high-rate (target) currency. In logs, its excess return is

xrt+1=(it−it∗)−Δst+1.(11.22)xr_{t+1} = (i_t - i_t^*) - \Delta s_{t+1}. \tag{11.22}

Under UIP, E[xr]=0\mathbb E[xr]=0. If (11.20) holds with slope bb, then Et[xrt+1]=(1−b)(it−it∗)−a\mathbb E_t[xr_{t+1}] = (1-b)(i_t-i_t^*) - a, positive whenever b<1b<1 and the differential is positive. Carry has earned positive average returns historically. Brunnermeier, Nagel and Pedersen (2008, NBER Macroeconomics Annual 23:313–348 [V]) show the returns come with negative skewness. High-rate currencies "go up the stairs and come down the elevator" when funding liquidity dries up and carry positions are unwound together, as in 2008 and the yen-carry unwind of August 2024. The premium is compensation for crash risk.

INR as a carry currency The rupee offers a positive rate gap against the dollar, so foreign investors in Indian bonds earn carry. Through 2026 the INR–USD policy-rate gap narrowed to about 1.6 pp (5.50% vs a 3.875% midpoint). At the same time FX volatility rose sharply, with the rupee reaching a record low in March (11.11). The carry-to-volatility ratio, the trade's Sharpe proxy, fell, which is one reason FPI bond and equity flows turned negative.

11.9.3Purchasing power parity#

Absolute PPP: S=P/P∗S = P/P^*, where PP and P∗P^* are price levels. Relative PPP: Δs=π−π∗\Delta s = \pi - \pi^*. The real exchange rate is q=s+p∗−pq = s + p^* - p. PPP says qq is constant. Empirically:

  1. PPP fails badly at horizons under two years, because nominal exchange rates are far more volatile than price ratios.
  2. Real exchange rates mean-revert slowly. For an AR(1) qt=ρqt−1+etq_t=\rho q_{t-1}+e_t at annual frequency, the half-life is ln⁡0.5/ln⁡ρ\ln 0.5/\ln\rho. The consensus range of 3–5 years surveyed by Rogoff (1996, "The Purchasing Power Parity Puzzle", J. Econ. Lit. 34(2):647–668) implies ρ≈0.79\rho\approx0.79–0.870.87.
  3. Balassa–Samuelson: fast productivity growth in a country's traded-goods sector raises its non-traded prices, so fast-growing economies show real appreciation over decades.

For INR, relative PPP is a useful long-run anchor. India's inflation has typically run 2–4 pp above US inflation, and the rupee's long-run nominal depreciation is of that order, while year-to-year moves are dominated by flows and oil. The RBI publishes 40-currency nominal and real effective exchange rate indices (NEER/REER) in its Bulletin. A REER well above 100 (overvaluation) is a standard argument for tolerating depreciation.

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